If child support is going to compensate a portion of the mortgage, does dad achieve partly when house sell?
a guy gets divorced, he pays his support payments on time every month! after kids are grown the mom does not requirement a big house anymore so she sells house that dads child support help repay for should the dad get half the proceeds of the house when she sale?
seems right to me!
Answers:
It doesn't work like that. If she cant afford to engineer the repayments on the house then it should be sold and she should get a more affordable place.
Child support is supposed to progress to a whole range of things, not basically 'rent'.
Education, clothes, sport, and things for the children.Obviously having a place to live is important, but if she is using adjectives of the child support payments on the mortgage, the I suggest a review is in order.
Are you kid me ?
If the guy wanted something to do with the house, it should hold been settled during the property settlement portion of the divorce. Everything regarding any type of property or money issue is written into the divorce contract.
You can't re-write the lingo of the divorce after the divorce. If you wanted a portion of the home, you should have deal with this during the divorce process.
If the wife buys shoes for the children, or food, etc. with the money you pass her for child support, does that mean you want 1/2 back of everything when they are of age ?
The money you administer to her for your children is spent on the welfare of the children - food, shoes, living quarters, paper towels, clorax - etc. Everything !
If the divorce settlement give the house to the wife, she can do what she wants to with it. It is hers.
Get over it and get hold of a life.
No. He wasn't living there. Child support: child needs shelter, so mom puts the support toward mortgage.
If she go out and bought groceries would you be entitled to half of those too? No. You shouldn't get partly. Its her house.
No because it is not specifically designated how child support is to be spent. The money is usually solely a portion of what is needed to provide for the children; the receiver should also be providing a share of financial support. What if the woman rented a place instead of owned it?
If it was a home that the mother and father both shared, the man should enjoy gotten his fair share of the equity upon divorce.
It's called "child support"..........not "wife support". If this was ordered - afterwards it is called "maintenance" or "alimony".
In either crust, the money paid is for the designated SUPPORT of that individual(s) that YOU should have be doing all along anyway!
What you asked to be a part of by your "vow" be not intended to be an INVESTMENT that you can recoup at some later date.
What are you? Like 14 y.o.?
(no wonder you get a divorce!)
Nope... not unless that is timetabled in your divorce agreement. You have no entitlement to that house of late because a portion of your child support goes to the mortgage. I don't understand the mentality of some men who meditate they need to be compensated in some path when paying child support for THEIR children........amazing.........
Depends upon what they agreed to in the divorce settlement, that's an issue that's usually resolved until that time the divorce is final. The child support payment is just that, it's for the mother to preserve a roof over the children's head and everything else that goes into raise children and isn't allocated into $25 towards the mortgage payment, $15 for utilities, $25 for food, etc. I'm not with you on this one.
Depends on the ownership of the house and the divorce deg
cree. If she owns the house (through the decree) he has no rights. If he owns it 50% he is entitled to half.
So it depends on who the divorce what finalised NOT on the child support explicitly money to bring up HIS children.
Ummm, you usually supply the house and split the proceeds, or at least get compensated within some way. You are a very bitter man.
Child support is for "children living expenses".
Be, what ever!
Should he get 1/2 their clothes, when they out grow them!
Good for you for the prompt payments, you are a leader,
by example!
The answerers here are wrong. In some cases, that actually happen. My friend had it written into her divorce decree that when the kids are out of institution and support has stopped, she has to pay envelope her husband the buy out price of the house (but that figure is the amount at the time of the divorce not the current sale price) or vend it and give him that sum.
Only if contained by your divorce papers is says the house is 1/2 yours
Related Questions:
Does it cause more sense for me to shrink the interest on my mortgage or invest within my 401K?
My loan is a 30 yr fixed (a) 5.75 and I'm at the start of my 5th year in the home. My present loan balace is about 100K. At present I don't...
seems right to me!
Answers:
It doesn't work like that. If she cant afford to engineer the repayments on the house then it should be sold and she should get a more affordable place.
Child support is supposed to progress to a whole range of things, not basically 'rent'.
Education, clothes, sport, and things for the children.Obviously having a place to live is important, but if she is using adjectives of the child support payments on the mortgage, the I suggest a review is in order.
Are you kid me ?
If the guy wanted something to do with the house, it should hold been settled during the property settlement portion of the divorce. Everything regarding any type of property or money issue is written into the divorce contract.
You can't re-write the lingo of the divorce after the divorce. If you wanted a portion of the home, you should have deal with this during the divorce process.
If the wife buys shoes for the children, or food, etc. with the money you pass her for child support, does that mean you want 1/2 back of everything when they are of age ?
The money you administer to her for your children is spent on the welfare of the children - food, shoes, living quarters, paper towels, clorax - etc. Everything !
If the divorce settlement give the house to the wife, she can do what she wants to with it. It is hers.
Get over it and get hold of a life.
No. He wasn't living there. Child support: child needs shelter, so mom puts the support toward mortgage.
If she go out and bought groceries would you be entitled to half of those too? No. You shouldn't get partly. Its her house.
No because it is not specifically designated how child support is to be spent. The money is usually solely a portion of what is needed to provide for the children; the receiver should also be providing a share of financial support. What if the woman rented a place instead of owned it?
If it was a home that the mother and father both shared, the man should enjoy gotten his fair share of the equity upon divorce.
It's called "child support"..........not "wife support". If this was ordered - afterwards it is called "maintenance" or "alimony".
In either crust, the money paid is for the designated SUPPORT of that individual(s) that YOU should have be doing all along anyway!
What you asked to be a part of by your "vow" be not intended to be an INVESTMENT that you can recoup at some later date.
What are you? Like 14 y.o.?
(no wonder you get a divorce!)
Nope... not unless that is timetabled in your divorce agreement. You have no entitlement to that house of late because a portion of your child support goes to the mortgage. I don't understand the mentality of some men who meditate they need to be compensated in some path when paying child support for THEIR children........amazing.........
Depends upon what they agreed to in the divorce settlement, that's an issue that's usually resolved until that time the divorce is final. The child support payment is just that, it's for the mother to preserve a roof over the children's head and everything else that goes into raise children and isn't allocated into $25 towards the mortgage payment, $15 for utilities, $25 for food, etc. I'm not with you on this one.
Depends on the ownership of the house and the divorce deg
cree. If she owns the house (through the decree) he has no rights. If he owns it 50% he is entitled to half.
So it depends on who the divorce what finalised NOT on the child support explicitly money to bring up HIS children.
Ummm, you usually supply the house and split the proceeds, or at least get compensated within some way. You are a very bitter man.
Child support is for "children living expenses".
Be, what ever!
Should he get 1/2 their clothes, when they out grow them!
Good for you for the prompt payments, you are a leader,
by example!
The answerers here are wrong. In some cases, that actually happen. My friend had it written into her divorce decree that when the kids are out of institution and support has stopped, she has to pay envelope her husband the buy out price of the house (but that figure is the amount at the time of the divorce not the current sale price) or vend it and give him that sum.
Only if contained by your divorce papers is says the house is 1/2 yours
Related Questions:
Does it cause more sense for me to shrink the interest on my mortgage or invest within my 401K?
My loan is a 30 yr fixed (a) 5.75 and I'm at the start of my 5th year in the home. My present loan balace is about 100K. At present I don't...