Why would a frozen money lender not get this loan? 65% 1st Mortgage from lender street trader second for 35%?

If in fact the lender requests to make sure the house has ample equity in case they own to foreclose, they have more than enough equity to tender them that comfort. When you consider that the buyer has good credit, why would the unyielding money lender not make that loan? The only argument I can somewhat make a contribution credence to is that the buyer has not put any of his own money into the deal, and is more feasible to walk away if something goes wrong. But I would argue that the lender within this case is more protected than in a typical 5% down conventional house purchase loan where on earth the borrower puts 5% down even when you factor in PMI.
Answers:
if it is a house to occupy, skip the strong money and ask for a first and 2nd mortgage,
for 80/20--which I got for my house. [and I put nothing down] Source(s): RE BROKER
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It is the total loan to value on the home (a) 100% I don't regard as there is a hard money lender out in that that would do this loan. The buyer has to put some money down, probably at least 10%.
Hi Jess,

Actually a complicated money lender wont touch this scenario because you will be over financed. Hard money lenders always charge points and a high interest rate on the money that they loan out. Those points added to the 65% that you already obligation and a 35% second (regardless of where it comes from) puts the amount borrowed on the property above 100% and you have not put anything into the hood!

As an aside, hard money lenders are very astute at putting the numbers together and due diligence. If they wont fund the treaty its because its not a deal.

Regards Source(s): President of Michigan Future Investments


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